These 50 CAPM exam questions and answers, updated for 2026, follow the four domains of the current Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) exam from the Project Management Institute (PMI). Each question includes the correct answer and a short explanation, so you can check your reasoning, spot weak areas, and focus your remaining study time where it counts.
The questions are grouped by exam domain and move from core concepts to specialized topics. Agile and business analysis questions are included because those two domains together account for 47% of the exam.
What Kind of Questions Are on the CAPM Exam?
The CAPM exam format is 150 questions in 3 hours. Of those, 135 are scored and 15 are unscored pretest items that look identical to the rest. Question types include multiple-choice, multiple-response, matching, and hotspot items, and the exam is closed book.
PMI writes every question against the CAPM content outline, which splits the CAPM exam domains by weight as follows:
| Domain | Exam Weight | Approx. Scored Questions (of 135) | Main Topics |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts | 36% | About 49 | Life cycles, process groups, roles, risk, quality, communication |
| 2. Predictive, Plan-Based Methodologies | 17% | About 23 | Scope, WBS, schedule, cost, change control |
| 3. Agile Frameworks/Methodologies | 20% | About 27 | Scrum, Kanban, adaptive planning, agile metrics |
| 4. Business Analysis Frameworks | 27% | About 36 | Stakeholders, requirements, prioritization, traceability |
There is no published CAPM passing score. Your score report rates each domain as Above Target, Target, Below Target, or Needs Improvement instead. To apply, you need a secondary degree and 23 hours of project management education. You do not need any project experience.
How to Use These CAPM Practice Questions
Use these questions as a diagnostic, not a memorization list. Follow these four steps:
- Answer each question before you read the explanation. Cover the answer line if you need to.
- Track your misses by domain so you can see where your score report would be weakest.
- Re-read the explanation for every miss, then review that topic in your PMI reference material.
- Come back to missed questions a few days later to check that the concept stuck.
Work these questions into a structured CAPM study plan so practice happens alongside your reading, not only in the final week.
Once you can explain every answer here, move on to a full-length CAPM practice test and work on pacing. For test-day tactics such as eliminating distractors, see these CAPM exam strategies.
Domain 1: Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts (Questions 1 to 22)
This domain carries the most weight at 36%. These CAPM sample questions cover the project life cycle, process groups, roles, risk, quality, communication, and procurement basics.
1. Which of the Following is the First Step in the Project Management Process?
a) Planning
b) Initiating
c) Executing
d) Monitoring and Controlling
Answer: b) Initiating
Explanation: Initiating comes first. In this process group, the project is formally authorized, the project charter is developed, and stakeholders are identified.
2. What is the Primary Purpose of the Project Charter?
a) To detail the project schedule
b) To formally authorize the project
c) To assign tasks to team members
d) To estimate project costs
Answer: b) To formally authorize the project
Explanation: The project charter formally authorizes the project and gives the project manager the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
3. The Project Manager Has Drafted the Project Charter, but the Sponsor Says Two Items Are Missing for Approval. Which Two Should Be Included? (Choose Two)
a) High-level requirements
b) Stakeholder register
c) Assigned team members
d) High-level risks
e) Assumption log
Answer: a) High-level requirements, d) High-level risks
Explanation: The project charter documents high-level requirements and overall project risk, along with objectives, milestones, and the assigned project manager. The stakeholder register and assumption log are separate project documents, and detailed team assignments come later.
4. Which Process Group Involves Tracking, Reviewing, and Regulating the Progress and Performance of a Project?
a) Executing
b) Monitoring and Controlling
c) Planning
d) Initiating
Answer: b) Monitoring and Controlling
Explanation: The Monitoring and Controlling process group tracks, reviews, and regulates progress and performance, identifies needed changes, and starts those changes so the project stays on track.
5. Which Process is Responsible for Formally Closing a Project or Phase?
a) Close Project or Phase
b) Control Scope
c) Perform Integrated Change Control
d) Control Procurements
Answer: a) Close Project or Phase
Explanation: Close Project or Phase finalizes all activities, transfers the final deliverables, archives project information, and captures lessons learned for future projects.
6. Which Technique Helps Identify Roles and Determine Levels of Responsibility for Each Task?
a) Capability table
b) Dependency and responsibility tracker
c) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed (RACI) matrix
d) Affinity diagram
Answer: c) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed (RACI) matrix
Explanation: A RACI matrix shows who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed for each task or deliverable. It removes confusion about ownership, and each task should have exactly one Accountable person.
7. The Process of Identifying the Skills and Expertise Needed for the Project, and Defining How Resources Will Be Managed, is Called:
a) Plan Resource Management
b) Manage Team
c) Acquire Resources
d) Develop Team
Answer: a) Plan Resource Management
Explanation: Plan Resource Management defines how team and physical resources will be estimated, acquired, managed, and used. Its output documents roles, required competencies, and the staffing approach. Acquire Resources, Develop Team, and Manage Team happen later, during execution.
8. What is the Main Purpose of the Resource Management Plan?
a) To identify risks
b) To allocate and manage project resources
c) To define the project scope
d) To develop the project schedule
Answer: b) To allocate and manage project resources
Explanation: The resource management plan describes how team and physical resources will be categorized, allocated, managed, and released throughout the project.
9. Which of the Following is a Technique Used to Identify Risks in a Project?
a) SWOT analysis
b) Monte Carlo simulation
c) Control chart
d) Pareto chart
Answer: a) SWOT analysis
Explanation: SWOT analysis (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats) widens the range of risks the team identifies by looking at the project from several angles. Monte Carlo simulation is a quantitative analysis tool, and control and Pareto charts are quality tools.
10. Which Risk Management Process Prioritizes Risks for Further Analysis or Action by Assessing Their Probability and Impact?
a) Identify Risks
b) Plan Risk Responses
c) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
d) Monitor Risks
Answer: c) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Explanation: Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis assesses each risk's probability of occurrence and potential impact on objectives. The result is a prioritized list that shows which risks need more attention.
11. Which Tool Rates Identified Risks by Their Likelihood and Impact on Project Objectives?
a) Brainstorming
b) Probability and impact matrix
c) SWOT analysis
d) Monte Carlo simulation
Answer: b) Probability and impact matrix
Explanation: A probability and impact matrix, often called a risk assessment matrix, plots each risk's likelihood against its impact. Teams use it to rank risks as high, medium, or low priority during qualitative analysis.
12. A Project Manager is Developing a Risk Response Plan. A High-Impact Risk With a Low Probability of Occurrence Has Been Identified. Which Risk Response Strategy Would Be Most Appropriate?
a) Risk avoidance
b) Risk transfer
c) Risk mitigation
d) Risk acceptance
Answer: b) Risk transfer
Explanation: Risk transfer shifts ownership of a threat and its financial impact to a third party, for example through insurance, warranties, or outsourcing. It suits high-impact, low-probability threats because the cost of transfer is usually small compared with the potential loss. Transfer moves responsibility for the risk; it does not eliminate it.
13. What is the Purpose of the Risk Register?
a) To identify risks
b) To document and track identified risks
c) To assign risk owners
d) To prioritize risks
Answer: b) To document and track identified risks
Explanation: The risk register records each identified risk along with its assessment, owner, potential impact, and planned response, and it is updated throughout the project.
14. Which Quality Management Tool is Used to Identify Potential Causes of a Problem?
a) Flowchart
b) Cause-and-effect diagram (fishbone diagram)
c) Control chart
d) Pareto chart
Answer: b) Cause-and-effect diagram (fishbone diagram)
Explanation: A cause-and-effect diagram, also called a fishbone or Ishikawa diagram, helps teams brainstorm possible root causes of a problem under categories such as people, processes, equipment, materials, environment, and measurement. Fixing root causes keeps the problem from recurring.
15. The Process of Ensuring Timely and Appropriate Collection, Distribution, and Management of Project Information is Called:
a) Manage Communications
b) Plan Communications Management
c) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
d) Monitor Communications
Answer: a) Manage Communications
Explanation: Manage Communications covers the collection, creation, distribution, storage, and retrieval of project information so stakeholders get the right information at the right time. Older PMBOK Guide editions called this activity Information Distribution, so you may still see that name in some prep materials.
16. Which Document Serves as a Formal Record of Project Meeting Discussions and Decisions?
b) Meeting minutes
c) Risk register
d) Stakeholder register
Answer: b) Meeting minutes
Explanation: Meeting minutes formally record the decisions, action items, owners, and key discussion points from project meetings.
17. Which Skill is Most Important for Effective Stakeholder Communication in a Project?
a) Technical writing
b) Active listening
c) Risk assessment
d) Cost estimation
Answer: b) Active listening
Explanation: Active listening helps the project manager understand stakeholders' needs, concerns, and feedback. That understanding builds trust and makes expectations easier to manage.
18. What is the Primary Focus of Quality Assurance (Manage Quality) in Project Management?
a) Inspecting finished deliverables for defects
b) Making sure quality processes are followed so deliverables will meet requirements
c) Developing the project schedule
d) Managing project costs
Answer: b) Making sure quality processes are followed so deliverables will meet requirements
Explanation: Quality assurance happens in the Manage Quality process. It looks at the processes used to create deliverables and uses audits and process analysis to build confidence that quality requirements will be met. Inspecting finished deliverables for defects belongs to Control Quality.
19. Which Process Monitors and Records the Results of Quality Activities to Assess Performance and Recommend Necessary Changes?
a) Quality assurance
b) Control Quality
c) Manage Quality
d) Plan Quality Management
Answer: b) Control Quality
Explanation: Control Quality monitors and records the results of quality activities, verifies that deliverables meet requirements, and recommends changes where performance falls short.
20. Which of the Following is NOT a Project Quality Management Process?
a) Plan Quality Management
b) Manage Quality
c) Control Quality
d) Validate Scope
Answer: d) Validate Scope
Explanation: Validate Scope belongs to Project Scope Management. The three Project Quality Management processes are Plan Quality Management, Manage Quality, and Control Quality.
21. Which Process Involves Obtaining Seller Responses, Selecting a Seller, and Awarding a Contract?
a) Plan Procurement Management
b) Conduct Procurements
c) Control Procurements
d) Acquire Resources
Answer: b) Conduct Procurements
Explanation: Conduct Procurements is where the team obtains responses from vendors, evaluates them against the selection criteria, and awards the contract to the chosen seller.
22. What is a Key Characteristic of a Fixed-Price Contract?
a) The buyer bears most of the cost-related risk
b) The seller bears most of the cost-related risk
c) The contract allows unlimited budget increases
d) The contract can be modified easily at any time
Answer: b) The seller bears most of the cost-related risk
Explanation: In a fixed-price contract, the seller agrees to deliver the defined work for a set price. If costs run over, the seller absorbs the difference, so the buyer's cost risk is low as long as the scope is well defined.
Domain 2: Predictive, Plan-Based Methodologies (Questions 23 to 40)
Predictive questions make up 17% of the exam and test scope, schedule, cost, and change control on plan-based projects. Process names below follow PMI's standard terminology. For a deeper reference on these terms, start with the top CAPM prep books.
23. The Process of Combining All Subsidiary Plans into a Consistent, Unified Project Management Plan is Called:
a) Develop Project Charter
b) Develop Project Management Plan
c) Direct and Manage Project Work
d) Monitor and Control Project Work
Answer: b) Develop Project Management Plan
Explanation: This process integrates the subsidiary plans (scope, schedule, cost, quality, resource, communications, risk, procurement, and stakeholder management) and the baselines into one coordinated project management plan.
24. Which of the Following is NOT a Key Output of the Planning Process Group?
a) Project management plan
b) Scope statement
c) Work performance data
d) Schedule baseline
Answer: c) Work performance data
Explanation: Work performance data is raw data gathered while the work is carried out, so it comes from the Executing process group. The other three options are planning outputs.
25. What is the Purpose of the Project Scope Statement?
a) To provide a detailed description of the project deliverables
b) To estimate project costs
c) To assign tasks to team members
d) To monitor project progress
Answer: a) To provide a detailed description of the project deliverables
Explanation: The project scope statement describes the deliverables in detail, along with the product scope description, acceptance criteria, exclusions, assumptions, and constraints.
26. Which Document Outlines the Project's Acceptance Criteria?
a) Project charter
b) Scope statement
c) Quality management plan
d) Stakeholder register
Answer: b) Scope statement
Explanation: The scope statement lists the acceptance criteria, which are the conditions deliverables must meet before stakeholders accept them.
27. What is the Primary Purpose of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
a) To allocate resources
b) To break down project work into manageable components
c) To define project risks
d) To schedule project activities
Answer: b) To break down project work into manageable components
Explanation: The WBS decomposes the total scope into smaller deliverables and work packages that are easier to estimate, schedule, assign, and control.
28. A Scope Baseline is Composed of Which Three Components?
a) Project charter, WBS, project management plan
b) Project scope statement, WBS, project schedule
c) Project scope statement, WBS, WBS dictionary
d) Project scope statement, WBS, cost baseline
Answer: c) Project scope statement, WBS, WBS dictionary
Explanation: The scope baseline is the approved version of the scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary. It can only change through formal change control, and it serves as the reference point when the team measures scope performance.
29. Which Process Formalizes Acceptance of Completed Project Deliverables by the Customer or Sponsor?
a) Control Quality
b) Validate Scope
c) Control Scope
d) Close Project or Phase
Answer: b) Validate Scope
Explanation: Validate Scope is a Monitoring and Controlling process in which the customer or sponsor formally accepts deliverables that Control Quality has already checked for correctness. Close Project or Phase later wraps up the project as a whole.
30. Which of the Following is a Technique Used in the Estimate Activity Durations Process?
a) Analogous estimating
b) Quality management planning
c) Expert judgment
d) Both A and C
Answer: d) Both A and C
Explanation: Analogous estimating uses actual durations from similar past projects, while expert judgment draws on the knowledge of experienced people. Both are standard techniques in Estimate Activity Durations.
31. An Estimating Technique That Uses a Statistical Relationship Between Historical Data and Other Variables to Calculate Duration or Cost is Called:
a) Critical path method
b) Parametric estimating
c) Analogous estimating
d) Three-point estimating
Answer: b) Parametric estimating
Explanation: Parametric estimating multiplies a quantity of work by a historical rate. For example, if installing one meter of cable has historically taken 2 hours, installing 1,000 meters would be estimated at about 2,000 hours. Its accuracy depends on the quality of the underlying data.
32. A Technique Used to Estimate Activity Durations by Considering Optimistic, Pessimistic, and Most Likely Estimates is Called:
a) Analogous estimating
b) Parametric estimating
c) Three-point estimating
d) Bottom-up estimating
Answer: c) Three-point estimating
Explanation: Three-point estimating uses an optimistic (O), most likely (M), and pessimistic (P) estimate. The beta (PERT) formula gives the expected duration as (O + 4M + P) / 6, and the simpler triangular average is (O + M + P) / 3.
33. What Does the Critical Path Represent in a Project Schedule?
a) The shortest path to complete the project
b) The sequence of tasks that can be delayed without affecting the finish date
c) The sequence of tasks with the longest duration and least flexibility
d) The most expensive tasks in the project
Answer: c) The sequence of tasks with the longest duration and least flexibility
Explanation: The critical path is the longest sequence of dependent activities through the schedule network, and it sets the shortest possible project duration. Critical path activities usually have zero total float, so any delay to them delays the project finish date.
34. Which Process is Responsible for Controlling Changes to the Project Schedule?
a) Perform Integrated Change Control
b) Control Schedule
c) Control Scope
d) Monitor Risks
Answer: b) Control Schedule
Explanation: Control Schedule monitors project status, updates the schedule, and manages changes to the schedule baseline so the project stays on track.
35. What is the Purpose of the Cost Management Plan?
a) To identify project risks
b) To allocate project resources
c) To estimate and control project costs
d) To manage project quality
Answer: c) To estimate and control project costs
Explanation: The cost management plan describes how project costs will be estimated, budgeted, managed, monitored, and controlled.
36. Which of the Following Best Describes the Cost Baseline?
a) Total project funding, including management reserves
b) The approved, time-phased budget made up of cost estimates plus contingency reserves, excluding management reserves
c) The actual costs incurred to date
d) The cost estimate for the most expensive work package
Answer: b) The approved, time-phased budget made up of cost estimates plus contingency reserves, excluding management reserves
Explanation: The cost baseline adds up the work package cost estimates and contingency reserves over time, and it is used to measure cost performance. Adding management reserves to the cost baseline gives the total project budget.
37. Earned Value Management (EVM) is a Project Performance Measurement Technique That Combines:
a) Scope, time, and cost
b) Scope and time only
c) Time and cost only
d) Cost and quality only
Answer: a) Scope, time, and cost
Explanation: Earned Value Management (EVM) combines scope, schedule, and cost to measure performance objectively. It uses Planned Value (PV), Earned Value (EV), and Actual Cost (AC) to calculate indicators such as Cost Variance (CV = EV - AC), Schedule Variance (SV = EV - PV), and the Cost Performance Index (CPI = EV / AC).
38. What is the Main Objective of the Perform Integrated Change Control Process?
a) To manage project risks
b) To oversee changes across the entire project
c) To define the project scope
d) To develop the project schedule
Answer: b) To oversee changes across the entire project
Explanation: Perform Integrated Change Control reviews every change request, approves or rejects it, and manages the resulting changes to deliverables, project documents, and the project management plan.
39. A Project Manager is Experiencing Significant Scope Creep. Which Action Would Be Most Effective in Regaining Control of the Project?
a) Increasing the project budget
b) Implementing a change control process
c) Extending the project deadline
d) Adding more resources to the project team
Answer: b) Implementing a change control process
Explanation: Scope creep is uncontrolled growth in scope. Sending every requested change through a formal change control process means each one is evaluated, documented, and approved or rejected before any work begins.
40. Which Document Records All Change Requests and Their Current Status?
a) Change log
b) Risk register
c) Issue log
d) Lessons learned register
Answer: a) Change log
Explanation: The change log records every change request along with its status (approved, rejected, or pending), so changes can be tracked and communicated throughout the project.
Domain 3: Agile Frameworks/Methodologies (Questions 41 to 45)
Agile topics make up 20% of the exam and cover Scrum roles and events, Kanban flow, and when an adaptive approach fits better than a predictive one. Agile and business analysis carry far more weight on the exam than their share of this set, so add extra drills on both from a full-length practice test.
41. In an Agile Project, Which Chart Shows the Amount of Work Remaining Over Time?
a) Burnup chart
b) Product backlog
c) Burndown chart
d) Kanban board
Answer: c) Burndown chart
Explanation: A burndown chart plots the work remaining, often in story points, against time in an iteration or release, so the team can see whether it is on track. A burnup chart shows work completed over time, usually with a separate line for total scope.
42. In Scrum, Who is Accountable for Ordering the Product Backlog to Maximize Value?
a) Scrum Master
b) Product Owner
c) Developers
Answer: b) Product Owner
Explanation: The Product Owner is accountable for maximizing the value of the product, which includes ordering the product backlog. The Scrum Master coaches the team and removes impediments, and the developers decide how to build the work.
43. What is the Main Purpose of the Sprint Retrospective?
a) To demonstrate the completed increment to stakeholders
b) To plan the work for the next sprint
c) To inspect how the last sprint went and agree on improvements
d) To update the burndown chart
Answer: c) To inspect how the last sprint went and agree on improvements
Explanation: The sprint retrospective closes each sprint. The Scrum Team reviews its people, processes, and tools and commits to improvements for the next sprint. Showing the increment to stakeholders happens in the sprint review.
44. What is the Main Purpose of Work-in-Progress (WIP) Limits on a Kanban Board?
a) To maximize the number of tasks started
b) To limit work in flight so flow improves and bottlenecks become visible
c) To assign tasks to specific team members
d) To fix the length of each iteration
Answer: b) To limit work in flight so flow improves and bottlenecks become visible
Explanation: WIP limits cap how many items can sit in each column of a Kanban board. Limiting work in progress shortens cycle time and exposes bottlenecks, because work cannot pile up unnoticed.
45. When is an Adaptive (Agile) Approach Most Appropriate for a Project?
a) When requirements are stable and fully known upfront
b) When requirements are uncertain and expected to evolve through frequent feedback
c) When regulations mandate fixed, sequential phases
d) When the contract fixes the scope with no changes allowed
Answer: b) When requirements are uncertain and expected to evolve through frequent feedback
Explanation: Adaptive approaches suit projects with high uncertainty or changing requirements, because short iterations and regular stakeholder feedback let the team adjust as it learns. Predictive approaches fit better when requirements are stable and well understood at the start.
Domain 4: Business Analysis Frameworks (Questions 46 to 50)
Business analysis makes up 27% of the exam. These questions cover stakeholders, requirements elicitation, prioritization, and traceability.
46. What is the Primary Purpose of Stakeholder Analysis?
a) To identify project risks
b) To allocate project resources
c) To determine stakeholder needs and expectations
d) To develop the project schedule
Answer: c) To determine stakeholder needs and expectations
Explanation: Stakeholder analysis identifies stakeholders and assesses their needs, expectations, interest, and influence on the project, which shapes how the team engages each one.
47. A Project Team is Struggling to Define the Scope Because Stakeholder Requirements Are Ambiguous. Which Technique Could Clarify the Requirements?
a) Mind mapping
b) Pareto chart
c) Cause-and-effect diagram
d) Requirements elicitation
Answer: d) Requirements elicitation
Explanation: Requirements elicitation gathers, documents, and validates stakeholder requirements through interviews, workshops, surveys, observation, and prototypes. It turns vague requests into a shared understanding of what the project must deliver.
48. During a Requirements Workshop, Every Elicited Requirement is Labeled a "Must Have." Which Tool Can Help Prioritize Them?
a) Use case
b) Multivoting
c) Peer review
d) Wireframe
Answer: b) Multivoting
Explanation: Multivoting lets a group narrow and rank a list by giving each participant a limited number of votes. It works well when everyone insists all requirements are essential.
49. Which Tool Links Each Requirement to Its Business Objective and Tracks It Through Delivery?
a) Requirements traceability matrix
b) Risk register
c) Issue log
d) Resource calendar
Answer: a) Requirements traceability matrix
Explanation: A requirements traceability matrix connects each requirement to its source and business objective and follows it through design, development, testing, and acceptance. It confirms that every requirement adds value and that none are lost or added without approval.
50. The Project Team, Working With the Product Owner, Will Develop a Hierarchical Description of the Work Needed to Deliver the Expected Business Value. What Artifact Will Be Created?
a) Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
b) Definition of Done (DoD)
c) Return on investment (ROI)
d) Work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: d) Work breakdown structure (WBS)
Explanation: A WBS is a hierarchical breakdown of the total scope of work needed to deliver the expected value. On agile teams, the same idea often shows up as a hierarchy of epics, features, and user stories. A risk breakdown structure organizes risks, not requirements.
Common Mistakes When Answering CAPM Questions
Most missed CAPM questions come down to a handful of repeat traps rather than unknown content:
- Missing NOT or EXCEPT in the stem. Questions 20 and 24 in this set use that pattern.
- Confusing similar process names, such as Validate Scope vs. Control Quality, or Manage Quality vs. Control Quality.
- Mixing up agile metrics. A burndown chart shows work remaining, while a burnup chart shows work completed.
- Skipping the formal process. PMI answers usually follow the defined process, such as submitting a change request, instead of acting informally.
Conclusion
Working through CAPM exam questions and answers is one of the fastest ways to find gaps before test day, but practice works best alongside a full review of all four domains. Use the explanations above to fix misunderstandings, then sit at least one timed, 150-question CAPM mock exam to build your pacing.
The credential is also a starting point for a longer career. PMI's 2025 Talent Gap report estimates that the world will need up to 30 million new project professionals by 2035.
If you plan to move up later, compare CAPM vs PMP to see how the two credentials fit together. If you want instructor-led preparation that covers every domain, look at structured CAPM certification training from Invensis Learning.
Frequently Asked Questions
Are these CAPM practice questions the same as the real exam?
No. PMI does not release live exam questions. These questions are written to match the four CAPM exam domains and the style of PMI items, so they test the same concepts without copying the exam itself.
Does PMI offer an official CAPM practice exam?
Yes. PMI sells an authorized online CAPM practice exam through its store. PMI also offers an on-demand CAPM Exam Prep Course, which counts toward the 23 hours of project management education required to apply.
Is the CAPM exam based only on the PMBOK Guide?
No. PMI builds the exam from the CAPM Examination Content Outline and publishes a reference list that includes the PMBOK Guide, the Agile Practice Guide, and other PMI publications. Studying one book alone leaves gaps, especially in agile and business analysis.
How many times can I take the CAPM exam?
You can attempt the CAPM exam up to three times within your one-year eligibility period, which starts when PMI approves your application.
Can I take the CAPM exam online?
Yes. You can take the CAPM exam as an online proctored test through Pearson VUE OnVUE or in person at a Pearson VUE testing center.
Do the unscored pretest questions affect my CAPM result?
No. The 15 pretest questions do not count toward your score, but they are mixed in with the 135 scored questions and look the same, so answer every question as if it counts.
